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Serious question about Speith hitting from the range


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Every week there is always discussion and biased opinions no matter who wins any tournament. Obviously the chatter is amplified this week after arguably the biggest name winning one of golf's biggest tournaments in a unique fashion. Some are commenting on the fact that 30 mins went by between his tee shot and second shot but a lot are saying that he never should have been allowed to hit it there. Now I understand they aren't arguing that it wasn't within the rules of this specific circumstance but they are arguing the exact point that the tournament organizers should have never made the practice range in bounds in the first place. This makes me ask a serious questions for those of you in the know.

 

How many Professional/PGA Tour/Major tournaments actually adopt a local rule or course rule making the practice range OB? I understand most courses have that rule in play but it's my general observation that the rule is strictly made for player's safety. I would argue that in a professional tournament if a player walks onto the range, the players on said range would probably be notified or simply notice and stop hitting balls. That can't happen efficiently outside of these professional tournament circumstances. To argue the point it was well documented that the R&A made a local rule this week to make an adjacent fairway OB from the tee on one hole for spectator safety. So, in that vain, why would it be appropriate to make an area putting no one in danger OB?

 

I certainly don't know enough about the subject in the first place which is why I'm simply starting the discussion. My only question is, do you those think it should be OB think that Seve should never have been allowed to hit that ball from the parking lot either?

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Every week there is always discussion and biased opinions no matter who wins any tournament. Obviously the chatter is amplified this week after arguably the biggest name winning one of golf's biggest tournaments in a unique fashion. Some are commenting on the fact that 30 mins went by between his tee shot and second shot but a lot are saying that he never should have been allowed to hit it there. Now I understand they aren't arguing that it wasn't within the rules of this specific circumstance but they are arguing the exact point that the tournament organizers should have never made the practice range in bounds in the first place. This makes me ask a serious questions for those of you in the know.

 

How many Professional/PGA Tour/Major tournaments actually adopt a local rule or course rule making the practice range OB? I understand most courses have that rule in play but it's my general observation that the rule is strictly made for player's safety. I would argue that in a professional tournament if a player walks onto the range, the players on said range would probably be notified or simply notice and stop hitting balls. That can't happen efficiently outside of these professional tournament circumstances. To argue the point it was well documented that the R&A made a local rule this week to make an adjacent fairway OB from the tee on one hole for spectator safety. So, in that vain, why would it be appropriate to make an area putting no one in danger OB?

 

I certainly don't know enough about the subject in the first place which is why I'm simply starting the discussion. My only question is, do you those think it should be OB think that Seve should never have been allowed to hit that ball from the parking lot either?

 

I have no idea how is allowed to take a drop in an area that simply had to be out of bounds especially with what was going on with the 9th hole

 

For what it's worth Seve put it in a temporary car parking area that was mown grass in the rough to the right hand side it wasn't exactly off the planet

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For me, I think if he'd have played his ball he actually would have had a better chance at par.

 

For that reason, it does not bother me.

 

If he had gone from a bush to manicured grass, maybe it would.

 

 

TBH, I think he had the tournament since Thursday, so don't think it would have mattered.

 

He took an unplayable lie penalty and dropped in a closely mown area. Isn't that pretty close to "from a bush to manicured grass"?

 

To the OP: the driving range isn't in play off the tee. There was no danger of any player hitting it there and it took a massively offline shot to get the unplayable drop to get there. I doubt it even crossed anyone's mind to mark it OB.

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Based on what was said during the broadcast, Spieth hit his ball 100 yards to the right, which for any non-pro means a lost ball, hit a provisional. The course probably never had a reason to make the practice area OB because it had never been an issue previously.

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It all depends on the situation. Most of the time when the range is close enough to a hole to have errant balls land on it, the course will make it OB so people don't keep wandering onto the driving range to find and hit their shot and end up getting beaned in the process. Someone of course, then rants about how there should never be inside-the-course OB. I've seen areas made OB for tournaments and I've seen previous OB areas made part of the golf course for a tournament. The driving range at Royal Birkdale was never considered OB as I understand it, so unless there was a specific decision made to make it OB for the tournament, it was going to be in play.

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For me, I think if he'd have played his ball he actually would have had a better chance at par.

 

For that reason, it does not bother me.

 

If he had gone from a bush to manicured grass, maybe it would.

 

 

TBH, I think he had the tournament since Thursday, so don't think it would have mattered.

 

He took an unplayable lie penalty and dropped in a closely mown area. Isn't that pretty close to "from a bush to manicured grass"?

 

To the OP: the driving range isn't in play off the tee. There was no danger of any player hitting it there and it took a massively offline shot to get the unplayable drop to get there. I doubt it even crossed anyone's mind to mark it OB.

 

Well, his ball was in grass. I'm not sure why he dropped. Maybe TV camera lens doesn't do the sand dune's bank justice.

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Every week there is always discussion and biased opinions no matter who wins any tournament. Obviously the chatter is amplified this week after arguably the biggest name winning one of golf's biggest tournaments in a unique fashion. Some are commenting on the fact that 30 mins went by between his tee shot and second shot but a lot are saying that he never should have been allowed to hit it there. Now I understand they aren't arguing that it wasn't within the rules of this specific circumstance but they are arguing the exact point that the tournament organizers should have never made the practice range in bounds in the first place. This makes me ask a serious questions for those of you in the know.

 

How many Professional/PGA Tour/Major tournaments actually adopt a local rule or course rule making the practice range OB? I understand most courses have that rule in play but it's my general observation that the rule is strictly made for player's safety. I would argue that in a professional tournament if a player walks onto the range, the players on said range would probably be notified or simply notice and stop hitting balls. That can't happen efficiently outside of these professional tournament circumstances. To argue the point it was well documented that the R&A made a local rule this week to make an adjacent fairway OB from the tee on one hole for spectator safety. So, in that vain, why would it be appropriate to make an area putting no one in danger OB?

 

I certainly don't know enough about the subject in the first place which is why I'm simply starting the discussion. My only question is, do you those think it should be OB think that Seve should never have been allowed to hit that ball from the parking lot either?

 

I have no idea how is allowed to take a drop in an area that simply had to be out of bounds especially with what was going on with the 9th hole

 

For what it's worth Seve put it in a temporary car parking area that was mown grass in the rough to the right hand side it wasn't exactly off the planet

 

Why does it "have" to be out of bounds? From what I heard, it's not ob even for member play..

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I tend to think if the "out of bounds" as in outside the boundary of the property (i.e. a person's house on a golf hole or a public street). Since the majority of driving ranges are on the golf club property, I have no problem with them not marking it as out of bounds. It's not like Jordan hit it on the range. He took a very unusual drop that we will only see in professional golf, and may never see again. I am unaware of any player hitting it onto the driving range at the Open this week.

 

I also see the reason why courses make the range OB. The weekend golfer looking for their golf ball on a driving range is not only dangerous but can take forever as well. Again, not something that was probable this week.

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For me, I think if he'd have played his ball he actually would have had a better chance at par.

 

For that reason, it does not bother me.

 

If he had gone from a bush to manicured grass, maybe it would.

 

 

TBH, I think he had the tournament since Thursday, so don't think it would have mattered.

 

He took an unplayable lie penalty and dropped in a closely mown area. Isn't that pretty close to "from a bush to manicured grass"?

 

To the OP: the driving range isn't in play off the tee. There was no danger of any player hitting it there and it took a massively offline shot to get the unplayable drop to get there. I doubt it even crossed anyone's mind to mark it OB.

 

It's really hard to understand why people don't get this.

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For me, I think if he'd have played his ball he actually would have had a better chance at par.

 

For that reason, it does not bother me.

 

If he had gone from a bush to manicured grass, maybe it would.

 

 

TBH, I think he had the tournament since Thursday, so don't think it would have mattered.

 

He took an unplayable lie penalty and dropped in a closely mown area. Isn't that pretty close to "from a bush to manicured grass"?

 

To the OP: the driving range isn't in play off the tee. There was no danger of any player hitting it there and it took a massively offline shot to get the unplayable drop to get there. I doubt it even crossed anyone's mind to mark it OB.

 

Well, his ball was in grass. I'm not sure why he dropped. Maybe TV camera lens doesn't do the sand dune's bank justice.

 

You're not sure why he dropped? Really?

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They did actually make a temporary OB rule for a hole this week because J Day was playing to it from another hole to get a better angle during practice rounds.

 

Day was also hitting it directly over the corner of a grandstand that was maybe 50 yards away - serious danger for fans if the ball didn't get up quick enough.

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Just to reiterate my original question and the real point to my post:

 

How common is it really to have the range OB in PGA/Professional tournaments?

 

I feel like people are arguing this as if it was some sort of fluke or one time mistake. I really would like to know if that's even remotely the case.

 

What do you want? Percentages? Would you like stats? It's fairly common.. more common than not? Not sure how else to answer. Can we close the thread now?

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Just to reiterate my original question and the real point to my post:

 

How common is it really to have the range OB in PGA/Professional tournaments?

 

I feel like people are arguing this as if it was some sort of fluke or one time mistake. I really would like to know if that's even remotely the case.

 

To answer your question, I don't know how common it is.

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Just to reiterate my original question and the real point to my post:

 

How common is it really to have the range OB in PGA/Professional tournaments?

 

I feel like people are arguing this as if it was some sort of fluke or one time mistake. I really would like to know if that's even remotely the case.

 

What do you want? Percentages? Would you like stats? It's fairly common.. more common than not? Not sure how else to answer. Can we close the thread now?

 

I'm going to thank you for at least being the first one to acknowledge and try to answer my question (rudely) since everyone else still wants to partake in a pissing contest. However I don't know why the hostility was directed towards me when we seem to have the same frustration on the topic. I was simply wondering something and figured I'd ask you guys.

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Just to reiterate my original question and the real point to my post:

 

How common is it really to have the range OB in PGA/Professional tournaments?

 

I feel like people are arguing this as if it was some sort of fluke or one time mistake. I really would like to know if that's even remotely the case.

 

What do you want? Percentages? Would you like stats? It's fairly common.. more common than not? Not sure how else to answer. Can we close the thread now?

 

I'm going to thank you for at least being the first one to acknowledge and try to answer my question (rudely) since everyone else still wants to partake in a pissing contest. However I don't know why the hostility was directed towards me when we seem to have the same frustration on the topic. I was simply wondering something and figured I'd ask you guys.

 

Sorry for the rude response. Uncalled for really. Reading some of the responses in here got me a little fired up. I've played events where the range is OB and I've played where it isn't. I would say the vast majority have been OB.

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I don't recall a count, but played courses where practice range is NOT OB, yet backyards and paralleling fairways were OB. And other courses paralleling fairways are not OB. At other events, we've seen pros chose to play down an paralleling fairway as it shorter and or easier and less costly than working their way back to the proper fairway.

 

Wasn't #9 the fairway that had an OB line drawn on the left side of parallel fairway, was on account one or more players asked if they could play the parallel hole, making 2nd shot much shorter. If that question wasn't asked, we might very well have seen many pros hitting down that hole.

 

More than likely the hitting from the practice range was an oversight by tournament leadership. Whether true, its done.

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For me, I think if he'd have played his ball he actually would have had a better chance at par.

 

For that reason, it does not bother me.

 

If he had gone from a bush to manicured grass, maybe it would.

 

 

TBH, I think he had the tournament since Thursday, so don't think it would have mattered.

 

He took an unplayable lie penalty and dropped in a closely mown area. Isn't that pretty close to "from a bush to manicured grass"?

 

To the OP: the driving range isn't in play off the tee. There was no danger of any player hitting it there and it took a massively offline shot to get the unplayable drop to get there. I doubt it even crossed anyone's mind to mark it OB.

 

Well, his ball was in grass. I'm not sure why he dropped. Maybe TV camera lens doesn't do the sand dune's bank justice.

 

You're not sure why he dropped? Really?

 

Can you tell me?

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All of this talk about OB got me thinking. My home course has only one hole with no OB, and that is hole 8, a par 3. Holes 1, 7, 9, 10 and 17 have OB on one side. Holes 3 and 13 have OB one side and water on the other. Hole 2, 4, 5, 6, 11, 12, 14, 15, 16 and 18 have OB both sides.

 

No wonder I suck.

 

(I numbered the holes the same as when the pros played it on the PGA Tour. We play the nines reversed, now.)

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Just to reiterate my original question and the real point to my post:

 

How common is it really to have the range OB in PGA/Professional tournaments?

 

I feel like people are arguing this as if it was some sort of fluke or one time mistake. I really would like to know if that's even remotely the case.

 

What do you want? Percentages? Would you like stats? It's fairly common.. more common than not? Not sure how else to answer. Can we close the thread now?

 

I'm going to thank you for at least being the first one to acknowledge and try to answer my question (rudely) since everyone else still wants to partake in a pissing contest. However I don't know why the hostility was directed towards me when we seem to have the same frustration on the topic. I was simply wondering something and figured I'd ask you guys.

 

Sorry for the rude response. Uncalled for really. Reading some of the responses in here got me a little fired up. I've played events where the range is OB and I've played where it isn't. I would say the vast majority have been OB.

 

No worries, Stu. Apology accepted. I know how frustrating these meaningless arguments can be. It was certainly not my intention to spark yet another debate about the subject.

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For me, I think if he'd have played his ball he actually would have had a better chance at par.

 

For that reason, it does not bother me.

 

If he had gone from a bush to manicured grass, maybe it would.

 

 

TBH, I think he had the tournament since Thursday, so don't think it would have mattered.

 

He took an unplayable lie penalty and dropped in a closely mown area. Isn't that pretty close to "from a bush to manicured grass"?

 

To the OP: the driving range isn't in play off the tee. There was no danger of any player hitting it there and it took a massively offline shot to get the unplayable drop to get there. I doubt it even crossed anyone's mind to mark it OB.

 

It was OB in 2008, its not OB to the membership so the rules officials decided it did not need to be marked OB this time around.

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